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Maths Question 20 – JEE-MAIN 2026

The integral 01cot1(1+x+x2)dx is equal to:

Convert the cot1 function to tan1 using the identity cot1y=tan1(1/y) for y>0.

Step 1: Simplify the integrand using trigonometric identities✦ Active

The integrand is cot1(1+x+x2). Since 1+x+x2=(x+1/2)2+3/4>0 for all real x, we can use the identity cot1y=tan1(1/y). This transforms the integrand to tan1(11+x+x2). We then use the identity tan1Atan1B=tan1(AB1+AB). By setting A=x+1 and B=x, we can write 11+x+x2=(x+1)x1+x(x+1). Thus, the integrand simplifies to tan1(x+1)tan1(x). The integral becomes:

I=01(tan1(x+1)tan1(x))dx
Step 2: Evaluate the indefinite integral of tan1u○ Expand

Using integration by parts, tan1udu=utan1uu1+u2du. To solve the remaining integral, let w=1+u2, so dw=2udu. Then u1+u2du=12dww=12log|w|=12log(1+u2). Therefore, the indefinite integral is:

tan1udu=utan1u12log(1+u2)

Let F(u)=utan1u12log(1+u2).

💡 Teacher's Secret Hint

Remember the standard integration by parts formula for inverse trigonometric functions.

Step 3: Apply the limits of integration○ Expand

The definite integral can be evaluated as I=[F(x+1)F(x)]01. This simplifies to I=(F(2)F(1))(F(1)F(0))=F(2)2F(1)+F(0). We calculate the values of F(u) at the limits:

F(2)=2tan1(2)12log(1+22)=2tan1(2)12log(5) F(1)=1tan1(1)12log(1+12)=π412log(2) F(0)=0tan1(0)12log(1+02)=012log(1)=0

Substitute these values back into the expression for I:

I=(2tan1(2)12log(5))2(π412log(2))+0 I=2tan1(2)12log(5)π2+log(2) I=2tan1(2)+log(2)12log(5)π2 I=2tan1(2)+12(2log(2)log(5))π2 I=2tan1(2)+12(log(4)log(5))π2 I=2tan1(2)+12log(45)π2

Since log(45)=log(54), the final result is:

I=2tan1(2)12log(54)π2

This matches option 4.

💡 Teacher's Secret Hint

Carefully evaluate the definite integral using the fundamental theorem of calculus and simplify the logarithmic terms.

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